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Old Sat Jun 30, 2007, 06:56pm
SanDiegoSteve SanDiegoSteve is offline
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It depends on if the umpire felt F5 had a chance to make a play on the ball. If he thinks F5 could not have gotten to the ball, he will not call interference. In this case, the umpire might have felt F6 had a play on the ball, but not F5. If this were the case, no interference.

It would not be "interference" on the fielder. It can be either interference on the runner, or obstruction on F5. If F5 had no play on the ball, and he impeded the progress of R2, it would be obstruction.
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