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Old Tue Jun 26, 2007, 03:24am
Steve M Steve M is offline
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Join Date: Aug 2000
Location: north central Pa
Posts: 2,360
welcome aboard, Kyle.

You asked "Obstruction. Obstruction is a DDB, I understand that. However, if a runner is obstructed between two bases, but decides to retreat to the initial base, are they still awarded the second base when play stops?" Where would this runner have ended up IF THERE WAAS NO OBSTRUCTION? Sometimes you will award the advance base, sometimes you won't.

Your first play - "For instance - B1 hits a hard base hit to center field. F8 fields the ball and throws it to F6 waiting at 2B. B1 rounds 1B and when B1 does so, B1 collides with F3. B1 sees F6 with the ball and retreats to 1B. Does B1 get 1B or 2B?" Would B1 have safely made it to 2B if F3 had not obstructed? Probably not, as I read your description, so call the obstruction and keep B1 at 1B.

Your second play is a bit different - "Another obstruction question.
R1 on 2B R2 on 1B. B3 hits a ball to F1, on fielder's choice, F1 decides to throw to F6 at 2B. While running from 1B to 2B, R2 is obstructed by F4. After receiving the throw, F6 throws the ball to F5 who steps on the base, but does not tag R1 forgetting that the force was removed. Normally, R1 would be safe since the force was removed. But since R2 is going to be awarded 2B, is the force still in effect and ipso facto, R1 out?"

When does obstruction go from a delayed dead ball to a dead ball? When the obstructed runner is put out, right? R2 was obstructed between 1B & 2B, was put out at 2B, and now you have a dead ball. One immediate effect of this is that everything stops - that means there was no play on R1.
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