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Originally Posted by SAump
After watching the White Sox/Cubs obstruction replay, I had questions about the TOO.
First, R3 stopped as 3B. Second, obstruction took place on R2 at 2B.
Third, R1 was near 2B at the TOO. Fourth, F3 had the ball in his glove near 1B at TOO.
With a delayed dead ball, negate the results of the obstruction, but why allow R1 to return to 1B.
Should R1, caught so far off 1B, have been returned safely to 1B with F3 holding the ball there at TOO?
Clearly, everything that unfolded after TOO was due to R1 forcing R2 off 2B.
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Firstly there is no R3 on this play, it is BR, R1 and R2.
Secondly, BR isn't "forcing" R1 off second, R1 chose to proceed to third base(he was forced to run to second not third).
Can't tell exactly when the obstruction took place but we know it happened right at second base and by the time the ball gets to the infield R1 is at least halfway to third. R1 then realizes that R2 is standing on third and tries to retreat to second and is tagged out.
The play on R1 wasn't immediately after the obstruction and didn't ultimately prevent him from gaining access to the base to which he was obstructed(3rd). He was tagged out going back to a base to which he wasn't obstructed (2nd).
How can the umpires say that the obstruction prevented R1 from getting back to second? R1 made the decision to continue on towards third base after the obstruction call without looking to see what R2 was doing and as a result got caught too far off the base to get back in time. If anything the obstruction prevented the runner from getting even further away from second and made the tag at second closer then it should have been!
Lawump, I agree with your analysis of what took place on the call and that the umpires determined the obstruction prevented R1 from getting back to second but I'm just not buying it.
All I see is bad baserunning.