[WestMichBlue]

Once again I question the determination of an obstruction base award made at the instant of the infraction, without considering the full field or results of the play.

Sit: R1 on 2B, batter hits pop fly over F5's head and both F6 and F7 chase, but the ball drops between them. R1 holds up on fly ball, starts to run when it drops, then gives up and returns to 2B.

Meanwhile, the B-R rounds 1B going full speed to 2B; bumps into F3 and is knocked off her feet. By time she gets up, the ball is returning to the infield so she retreats to 1B.

BU signals obstruction, decides (correctly) to protect B-R to 2B. At the end of the play he wants to send B-R to 2B - but R1 is there!

We are supposed to protect the runner to the base they would have reached had obstruction not occured. This runner was physically capable of reaching 2B ahead of any throw. But even without obstruction, the B-R would not have gone to 2B because R2 was still there.

So does it make sense to send B-R to 2B and force R1 to 3B? R1 chose not to advance, and possibly would have been thrown out at 3B because of the close proximity of the ball to 3B. How can we force a runner to advance because we artifically placed an obstructed runner on her base?

Before you answer, please fullly read RS 36.

WMB

PS - just to make it a little more fun - assume that B-R did advance to 2B even while R1 was returning to 2B. Suppose F6 throws ball to F4 who tags both runners on the base and looks at you, the BU. R1 "owns" the base so it is the B-R that would be called out. But she cannot be out due to obstruction. Would you leave B-R at 2B and send R1 on to 3B?