[greymule]

I should have specified ASA.

From the definition of foul ball: A batted ball that touches the batter or the bat in the batter's hand(s) a second time while the batter is in the batter's box.

8-2-F-4 Batter-runner is out when the batter-runner interferes with [sic] by making contact with a fair batted ball before reaching first base.

So I guess it hinges on how "in the batter's box" is defined.

I have been calling play #1 an out and play #2 a foul. It seemed to me that running into the ball in fair territory was an out, but "ball hits batter" while she still has a foot in the box was a foul. Now it may be that in some of these play #2 cases the ball was actually in the box while the BR's foot was out of the box, or it was close enough that a foul call was what everybody expected. But I have to admit to myself that I have been inconsistent, since in theory play 1 and play 2 are two versions of the same thing.

A strict reading of the book would indicate that in both cases, the BR is out. In play number 2, however, the benefit any doubt would go to the batter. This play is so common in FP; they bunt and then run into the ball, with the exact placement of their feet not quite clear. I guess play #2 is a default foul unless you're certain.

I certainly appreciate the input.