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Originally Posted by tibear
I agree with everyone here that it doesn't make any sense but how do you explain the comment?? Doesn't it clearly say that the force advance doesn't occur until the batter/runner has TOUCHED the base?
Any casebooks which explain this comment further?
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When ball 4 is called all forced runners are allowed to immediately advance to next base with out liability.
At least 2 situations exist that would put these runners at risk.
1. Ball 4 is reversed by check swing appeal
2. BR fails to advance to 1st.
As in following example:
Bottom 7, 1 out bases full, tie game.
B5 draws a walk. Instead of going to first BR celebrates as home team dugout empties. Heads up F2 tags R3 as he comes skipping into home.
BR heads back to dugout with rest of the team.
If just getting ball 4 entitled the forced runners to advance then this game is over, however, because of this rule we go to extra innings.