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Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve
How do you get "drops ball on purpose" to equal "allowed the ball to fall untouched?" That seems like quite a leap of logic to me. It really sounds like the fielder dropped the ball on purpose, meaning he gloved it, then dropped it. If he had meant otherwise, he would have said so.
Sure, allowing the ball to fall untouched would have been a smart play, but what are the odds that the average fielder has time to be so devious? I must reinterate that the poster meant exactly what he said.
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What are the odds that the average fielder knows that dropping the ball on purpose means gloving it and then dropping it? Very few, in my experience. Therefore, until the OP is clarified, I will not jump to any conclusion except to say that it is premature to tell the poster that the dropped-ball rule should have applied.