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Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve
How do you get "drops ball on purpose" to equal "allowed the ball to fall untouched?" That seems like quite a leap of logic to me. It really sounds like the fielder dropped the ball on purpose, meaning he gloved it, then dropped it. If he had meant otherwise, he would have said so.
Sure, allowing the ball to fall untouched would have been a smart play, but what are the odds that the average fielder has time to be so devious? I must reinterate that the poster meant exactly what he said.
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SD Steve, Let's try to clear this up by asking to OP to clarify.
mkolton, please clarify the "drops ball on purpose". Did the fielder field the ball then let it drop or let the ball drop untouched??????