[Dukat]

I was discussing an obstruction call with a fellow umpire we discussed a play that was hit to the fence and obstructed between 1st and 2nd and you judge that they would have had a home run had obstruction not occurred.

Does 8-5-B-3 automatically cut obstruction out after 2 bases past obstruction has been achieved? I never thought this before but after reading it again it seems to say that.

For those without the book handy:

ASA Official Rules 2007:
"If the obstructed runner is put out after passing the base which would have been reached had there been no obstruction OR advanced beyond the two bases where the obstruction occurred,
EFFECT: The obstructed runner will be called out. The ball remains live."

(Emphasis on "OR" was mine) - If this is a topic that had been discussed before I am sorry and just point me there. There are many obstruction topics so I couldn't wade through them all.