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Originally Posted by BigGuy
If the analogy I used is true, how can F3 touches 1B with ball before BR TOUCHES 1B be anything other than OUT?
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Because J/R and other AOs stress that in this case the BR has 'acquired' the bag, subject to appeal. 1B is unique in that the BR can overrun and not be tagged out (assuming no turn to 2B), so an instant return to 1B is not required.
Your cites show where AOs have established a standard mechanic and ruling for a 'gray area'/potential problem area of the rules. This mechanic isn't that new, Im amused that its still being 'debated' anywhere. If your assoc wants to say J/R and Evans are FOS on this one, thats your biz, I suppose.
If this is how yall do it, then whats your association's standard for when to call OUT and when SAFE? When the BR is 1 step past the bag? Only over the bag? 2 steps past the bag? What if he falls down, as in the OP?
What this about 'tipping off?' That phrase appears nowhere in my post. You tip nothing, you are stating a fact: the BR has acquired the base, subject to appeal.