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Originally Posted by NCASAUmp
Well, let me toss this out there, and keep in mind my book is back in my car. Again. The rule book (roughly) states that if we apply a rule, the ruling must not be in favor of the team at fault.
Wouldn't allowing the runner to score be ruling in favor of the team at fault?
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No, the ruling does not favor that team. The team earned that as if was their play which placed the runner were they were at the time of the player's indiscretion.
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Also, if umpires aren't allowed to use their discretion on plays that aren't covered in the rule book, why does rule 10-1 even exist? My interpretation of that rule is exactly as I had mentioned before: if it ain't in the book, it's umpire's discretion to determine the call based on the integrity of the game, guided by the spirit of the rule book. I know, I know, sounds a bit like a lofty concept, but I could think of no other way to phrase it. 
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If you cannot see it here, you can catch it on eteamz. You do not want people, umpires, coaches or anyone else, making it up as they go along. You would have rulings based on what someone did 40 years ago on the sand lot field or what some couch potato saw in the MLB the previous night.
I, as the umpire, do not want such liberty as there isn't even a remote chance any such rulings would be consistant across the state, let alone the nation.