[greymule]

Case book 2002, 8.1.1D: "When may a batter be hit by a pitch and not be awarded first base? Ruling: (1) The pitch is a strike, (2) the batter does not attempt to avoid being hit or (3) with no runners on base, the pitch is illegal and is not ball four."

I'm concerned about (3). Of course, "with no runners on base" is part of the definition of "illegal pitch." (2-18-1)

A pitcher can (unintentionally) bean a batter with an illegal pitch and get away with a ball rather than a hit batter?

6-2-1: "PENALTY: For defacing the ball . . . the ball is dead immediately. The umpire may eject the pitcher. If such defaced ball is pitched and then detected, it is an illegal pitch."

First pitch to batter hits him. Batter goes to 1B. Umpire determines that pitcher had discolored ball with dirt. Umpire determines pitch was illegal and calls batter back to box. Count now 1-0.

Pitcher delivers 0-2 pitch to batter. Umpire sees spit flying off ball. Batter hits ball over fence. Stay here, batter. Count is 1-2.

These situations can't be correct, and I wouldn't call them this way. But somebody tell me what I've missed.