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Originally Posted by BigGuy
Don't read more into the post than what is written. As soon as F1 removes his foot from the rubber, he becomes a fielder and the throw home becomes a legitimate play at HP on R3. The only ruling in this situation is interference on the part of the batter.
Depending on the number of outs either batter or runner are out.
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So we just ignore 8.05(g)?
Where does it say we should do that?
It actually got called a balk against Ramiro Mendoza (Red Sox) in a game against the Yankees. He stepped back then went through his normal from-set motion.