[greymule]

And if so, how can he be out on a 2B appeal if you have already ruled that he never reached to 2B?

He did reach 2B—even though he missed it—and by retreating he placed himself between 1B and 2B, still with liability to be put out for missing 2B.

Missing 2B and never reaching 2B—and retreating toward 1B after missing (or touching) 2B—are different things.

For the purposes of awarding bases, the runner is considered to have touched the bases he passed. For example: Abel on 1B runs on Baker's hit. Abel misses 2B and is on his way to 3B when F9 throws the ball into DBT. Abel was between 2B and 3B when F9 released the throw, so you award him home. You don't say, "Well, Abel never touched 2B, so I'll consider him as being between 1B and 2B and make the award from 1B."

The rule book is clear that passing a base is the same as touching it, except that the runner is liable to be put out on appeal. After all, the rule book says that a run scores when a runner touches 1B, 2B, 3B, and home. If a batter circles the bases on a hit but misses 2B, we score the run anyway unless the defense appeals the miss. We don't say, "Even though there was no appeal, the runner missed 2B and therefore did not fulfill the requirements for scoring a run."