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Old Sun Mar 03, 2002, 04:55pm
greymule greymule is offline
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Join Date: Jan 2002
Location: Birmingham, Alabama
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dual interpretations?

Is there some confusion about the meaning of "fielder had a chance to field the ball"? Are some people thinking "fielder had a chance to field the ball but failed to field it and then the ball hit the runner" and others thinking "fielder had a chance to field the ball but could not field it because it touched a runner first"?

As things stand, if a runner is on 2B and the infield is playing back and a line drive hits that runner, on or off the base, I'm calling that runner out even if nobody had a chance at a play. (I'll have a copy of BRD 115-298 handy, too.)
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