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Originally Posted by boyinblue24
yes, but it says:
except that the batter-runner MAY run outside (to the right of) the three-foot line or inside (to the left of) the foul line to avoid a fielder attempting to field a batted ball.
What I was taught was that since a runner is allowed to do this & let's just say he did; it wouldn't be anything if he was hit by a throw by a fielder. He didn't interfere, so it isn't the runner's fault.
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Let's examine what you've written...calmy and lgoically.
The runner, you say, can run outside the lane to avoid a fielder fielding the ball, right? So you figure that while he's out side the lane avoiding this fielder fielding the ball, he can be hit by the ball thrown by a fielder without it being interference.
Question. If the fielder the runner is avoiding is fielding the ball, where did the ball come from that hit the runner? And, who threw it?
Now, in case you're tempted to reply that this is the same fielder and the same ball and the fielder threw it after the runner passed him, then the runner really doesn't need to be out of the lane anymore to avoid the fielder, does he?