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Originally Posted by BigGuy
I don't know why NFHS wrote the rules the way they did.
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You don't have to know why ... you just have to realize that they DID write them differently.
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Personally I could care less how the rule is written.
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Color me shocked.
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I just want to know how I am expected to interpret the rule, which is what I stated. I am perfectly capable of making a judgment call but I need to base my judgment on something. What else do you want me to do?
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Good god, man. I do believe you've been told the answer to that question about 15 times now. The rest of us are beating our head against the walls trying to tell you what you should do and how you are expected to interpret the rule.
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Anybody can apply logic to any part of the phrases "IMMINENT" and "ATTEMPTING TO MAKE A PLAY" and have it slant one way or the other.
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You are not SLANTING it ... you are purposefully ignoring it. HUGE difference.
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I could easily say the reason it is not worded that the defensive player must have the ball is the following. To state the fielder has to have the ball might be interpreted to preclude any other factor from entering into the decision such as - how much of the base was blocked, if the runner slid short was it because he slid short or was prevented from sliding further..
Who knows, maybe they don't want to do it for liability reasons - I can't imagine why, but who knows. Just like the must slide/runner NEVER HAS to slide. Either he does or doesn't
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I don't even know where to start with this.... Why is it hard to believe that they have written a rule in a certain way because
THEY WANT YOU TO CALL IT THAT WAY.