[LMan]

What point is it to 'consistently guarantee the correct call' when it violates the rules?

Yep, its a cop-out. You can talk yourself into anything you want, but FED specifically allows a fielder 'making a play' to NOT have possession of the ball yet NOT be charged with obstruction (for ex, 8-3-2, especially Casebook Case 8-3-2 Sit C "When a play is imminent, no obstruction will be called"). Your refusal to allow this, simply to make life easier for YOU, is not in accordance with FED rules and tilts the game in favor of the offense, pure and simple. That's not an 'interpretation.'.....you are 'interpreting' that the rule simply doesn't exist. You are ignoring it (apparently) for the benefit of your own comfort zone....and your assertion that 'no coach ever protests this' means they dont know the rule. Good for you, I suppose. I wouldnt count on that lasting forever....because the first time you say, "I just always rule that the fielder has to have possession of the ball to do that," you have a valid FED protest for a rule misapplication.

Do what you want, but lets have no illusions that you have solved the Great FED Obstruction Judgement-Call Conundrum. Your policy of removing this common play from the ranks of 'judgement calls' tells me you DO have a problem with judgement calls.