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Originally Posted by CoachJM
bluehair,
Because of 8-4-2g.
That is, 8-4-2g is the basis for the principle that a runner (who is not forced), whether retired or not, is only liable to an interference call on a thrown ball if his act is deemed intentional by the umpire.
JM
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This may be the reason that I was looking for. My gut was saying that this was nothing, but the more I read the rules, the more I doubted. But indulge me one more what if:
What if the reason that F3 could not make the throw was because BR was running so far inside of fair territory (not inside the runner's lane). Wouldn't his disregard for the running lane rule be evidence of intent?