[jmaellis]

Originally Posted by Camron Rust

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EDIT: In fact, if you imagine the wall shifting such that it is alway between the defender and shooter, you can even use it for situations where the shooter is going by the defender. In that case, if the defender is pushing the wall toward the shooter at the time of contact, they've lost LGP and get a block.

Again, it about the defender getting their body into the path before the shooter jumps...even if the defender is still moving. Any additional lateral movement will either be neutral or will lessen the contact.

Thank you for all that, it was helpful and appreciated. I'm glad I went back and reviewed the post and noticed the edit.

I understand the concept of the wall directly in front of the player and how a player who has established LGP who breaches the vertical plane in front of him by bring his arms down over an opposing player or who pushes the wall into an opponent has committed a foul (illegal use of the hands and blocking respectively??).

Disclaimer: The following is a question, not an opinion or an interpretation unless so stated. Any description of the event or non-event, the placement of the feet/hands/body of a player are for the sole purpose of thoroughly explaining the situation so that everything that might be important is included for the purpose of a through analysis.

What about a situation in which B1 who has established LGP and extends his arm, bent at the elbow directly in front of him at a 90 degree angle to the floor; A1, who is dribbling the ball then runs directly into the front of B1 who never moved his arm from in front of him. 4-23-1 states that a player who extends an arm into the path of an opponent is not considered to have legal position if contact occurs. Since the vertical wall in front of B1 begins right at his face/belly/arms (I'm assuming that you mean arms against the body or at the side), the contact with B1's forearm occurred beyond the wall and in the path of A1 who was headed directly for B1 (block?).

Is there any allowance given to B1 considering, that if he had not had his arm in front of him, A1 would have ran directly into his torso?

I'm asking the brain trust because this exact situation occurred right in front of me during a youth rec. game. I called a block, which met with many boos, moans and groans from the stands. My partner was an experienced official and backed me on the court, but later told me said that he would have called the PC because B1's arm didn't put A1 at a disadvantage as he was running directly into B1 and made no effort to change direction. A different experienced official told me that he would have called a blarge because even though B1 was technically wrong for having his arm out in front of him, A1 was going to run into him anyway. I haven't had the opportunity to discuss it further with other refs. Anybody have any advice?