[greymule]

The J/R example is an obvious case. "Rounds 1B and passes him" clearly indicates passing on the base paths.

If BR overruns 1B down the RF line, did he pass a preceding runner whose foot is touching 1B? I would say no, though I admit you could argue that this is a special case.

Abel on 1B. Baker hits a liner at F4. Abel, who had started toward 2B, dives back into 1B, but his momentum is too great, so he fails to hold onto the bag and skids into foul territory. The ball deflects off F4's glove and rolls toward the foul line, away from both F4 and F9. Baker steps on 1B as Abel, lying in foul territory unable to reach 1B with his outstretched hands, gets up and, finally grasping the situation, tries to make it to 2B.

Did Baker pass Abel by stepping on 1B? I would say no. Does Abel have to touch 1B on the way to 2B? Again I would say no.

Now, with Abel lying on the foul side of 1B:

a. If Baker makes any kind of motion past 1B toward 2B, he has passed Abel.

b. Same if Baker stops on 1B with one foot toward 2B.

c. If Baker overruns 1B toward RF . . . that's a tough one, but I still don't think I'd call that passing the runner.