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Originally Posted by TheTedP
For objectivity; Ref quoted "a player cannot be charged in the back even if he is set"
In scenario 1, there was no disagreement in the accuracy of what I described, it was just a matter of whether someone else had to touch the ball first (before P1). From what I gather by both responses so far, it does not matter that the player had re-established himself in bounds, someone else DID need to touch the ball first.
Thank you again for your responses!
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You are mixing two situations. The violation that SHOULD have been called is for intentionally leaving the court. This should draw a whistle as soon as the player leaves the court.
The other aspect you are inferring improperly is the old saw that once a player is OOB, another player must touch or a violation results. This is not the case. Once a player leaves the court (legally), he may be first to touch provided he has established himself inbounds.
Just couldn't let you go away with that mistaken impression.