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Originally Posted by rwest
In my opinion, that is why ASA requires intent here. But can there be obstruction? Doesn't the fielder still have a right to field the ball? Does the fact that the ball was deflected change the status of the ball from a batted ball to a deflected ball and does that mean that the fielder loses their protection? In the definition of obstruction it mentions two actions a fielder can commit that prevents the obstruction call:
1. Be in possession of the ball
2. Be in the act of fielding a BATTED BALL.
It doesn't mention a deflected ball. Are they still protected?
Could this be just a train wreck and a live ball or do we have to get either obstruction or interference?
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From the '07 ASA UIC National Meeting presentation on INT/OBS that I stole the question from, here's the ruling:
Ruling: If, in the umpire's judgement, R2 intentionally interfered with F6 playing the batted ball, R2 would be ruled out for interference. The ball is dead, R1 is returned to the last base touched at the time of interference and B3 is awarded 1B. On the other hand, if the umpire did not believe the contact to be intentional, this would be a "no call" and play continues.
So to use this and answer your last question: Train wreck. I was just shaking off the rust regarding differences between
misplayed and
deflected balls and runners subsequently contacting fielders making plays on said balls.