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Originally Posted by Ref in PA
A1 drives to the basket. B1, defending near the free throw line, sticks his leg out slightly, slowing A1 a little. A1 continues and clearly beats B1 and has an easy scoring opportunity. A1 scores a layup.
If you call a foul on B1, A does not get the basket and takes the ball oob. Yes, B1 will have a foul in the books. Most of the coaches I know would not gripe about the foul, but would have preferred the points.
If B1's action allows B1 to retain guarding position or allows B2 to get into position to defend A1, then that exact same action should be called a foul. I think these scenarios depict why we are asked to judge advantage/disadvantage.
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This is a good example of a no-call no one would argue. But I guess I'm thinking of situations where there may or may not be a disadvantage caused by the foul itself (which, in these cases, clearly it is to the fouled team's advantage to continue to play), but a foul was committed. Hand check near half court. Block when not shooting which didn't really affect the person's motion, etc.