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Originally Posted by SAump
Now why would CoachJM rule fair in post # 7.
The divot ball foul too?
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He didn't rule fair, he was referring to a ball which settles in
fair territory after striking an object in
fair territory. Read it one more time. Nowhere does he say any of the original situations were fair balls.
Also, in post # 7, he quoted Jim Evans:
"...fair ball which contacts any object foreign to the natural ground in the general vicinity of the plate shall be ruled fair or foul depending on where the ball settles or is touched." Touched in this case means intentionally, after the contact with the foreign object.