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Old Fri Feb 16, 2007, 12:29pm
SanDiegoSteve SanDiegoSteve is offline
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Join Date: Oct 2005
Location: Lakeside, California
Posts: 6,724
Lawump,

My question now is, how is it possible that some "assistant" (there's that ugly word again!) director of a state association can overrule a rule from the rule book which is not subject to change by state adoption? It seems to me that this is being done surreptitiously, and should be ruled invalid.
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