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My comment "if it looked like R1 or R2 was a possible out and the interference was judged deliberate" would mean one or both were advancing, not holding their bases. So, if it's a possible out by R1 or R2. would it be interference to prevent a DP?
Doesn't the rule say the batter is out when hitting an Infield(er) Fly, meaning at the moment it is struck? While I agree that does not make sense, for reasons like it has to be fair and the analogy to a non-IFR fly which must be caught; is that an issue?
In the example of whether F4 had time to catch the ball, isn't that implied by the IFR definition part about caught by an infielder?
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Officiating takes more than OJT.
It's not our jobs to invent rulings to fit our personal idea of what should and should not be.
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