[greymule]

Should obstruction ever simply be ignored because it would have had no bearing on the play? Example from a play I had: R1 on 1B, R2 on 2B, 2 outs. B3 hit a hard one-hopper that F5 backhanded near 3B. Just before F5 stepped on 3B for the inning-ending force out, R2, 70 feet from 3B, collided with and fell over F6, who was standing in the baseline.

I let the out stand and didn't get much squawking from the offense. I did caution fielders to stay out of the way of runners, though. Here's another one, from a few years later:

B1 hit a ball that spun off a corner of the plate and then rolled 15 feet up the 1B line, about a foot fair. B1 stood still and F2 walked up the line to get the ball, both players thinking the ball to be foul. I figured I shouldn't say, "Fair," but I did point fair with my arm. F1 came in to field the ball, while the (lazy) F2 started to walk back to his position. B1 still didn't move. Then the offensive coach yelled to B1 to run. As F1 was throwing the ball to 1B for the out, B1 collided with F2, who was now 6 feet up the line from home. Again I let the out stand, but the offensive coaches wanted to know why I hadn't called obstruction. I came up with the excuse that the batter started so late that the catcher figured he had abandoned his effort, etc.

And can obstruction be ignored in the following (not-so-rare) case?: R1 on 1B, B2 lines a single to left. F7 charges, takes the ball on one hop, and fires the ball to 3B. R1 rounds 2B and collides with F6 as F5 catches the throw. If you believe that R1 was not actually trying to run to 3B but was just rounding 2B, do you still call obstruction and send him to 3B?

Any opinions or related plays?