Quote:
Originally posted by Slider
Quote:
Originally posted by BktBallRef
It's really not a difficult concept, I don't think. For one player to foul another player, the player's body illegally contacts an opponent's body.
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Then if I play defense and displace an airborne shooter by pushing on his jersey (while he is properly wearing it); there is no foul, correct?
[Edited by Slider on Feb 4th, 2002 at 11:52 PM]
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OOOOOH! I tend to agree with you Slider. If a player is intentionally pushing a player it doesn't matter if he is using his hand or the ball. If he uses illegal contact to dislodge an opponent such that he takes an advantage--foul. I saw something one time where B1 on defense came charging into the paint and ran into B2 and forced him into the shooter, A1. I don't know if I was right or not but I called the foul on B1 even though the contact was made by B2. There was much traffic in the paint and possibly for that reason, there were no complaints about the call.
But, about the original question, where the blocked shot was all ball, no foul. If the player that blocked the shot was so very aggressive and if you are sure that he intentionally tried to stuff it down the shooter's throat, an intentional technical could be called for unsportsmanlike conduct but it would have to be done on only the rarest of occasions. I've sure never seen it done.