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Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
How did A1 cause the ball to OOB if he was dribbling it in-bounds? The fan caused the ball to go OOB by interfering with the play. Whether that interference was deliberate or not has no bearing on the play either.
There is no wayinhell you can logically charge A1 with a violation under R9-3-1. Again, the fan caused the ball to go OOB, not A1.
If the fan came 4 feet onto the floor and knocked the ball OOB, would you call a violation on A1 too?
Just give the ball back to team A.
Lah me......
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If you want to make things up, then fine. The rules you cited say otherwise and the case you cited has nothing to do with the play. BTW the fan who is straddling the line is technically OOB, not inbounds. So by hitting the fan, he is dribbling it OOB. I also can't follow why you are saying that the fan hit the ball when the OP says the ball hit the fan.
Unless you've got a better rule citation than the ones you've given, then you have to give the ball to B.