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Originally Posted by Nevadaref
He implied it in post #30 which you quoted in #32 when he described the player as "one foot touching out of bounds," and then later wrote, "(I agree that the ball touching another A player who is completely out of bounds on an endline pass during the throw-in would not be a violation.)"
One would have to understand that he meant the first player with "one foot touching out of bounds" has the other foot touching inbounds, otherwise this player would, in fact, be "completely out of bounds."
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This is a correct inference and interpretation of what I wrote, because it's what I was (unclearly) implying.
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Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
Where did he state, not imply that the player was straddling the end line?
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I didn't. As I essentially said earlier: MY BAD.