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Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
The question is whether calling a TO voids the violation or only delays it until after the TO.
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I'd vote for no violation. In the situation where B steps in, then we have an A TO before the shot, the violation has actually occurred. We're simply delaying the penalty.
If A1 never stepped into the circle, no violation has occurred (assuming the TO was requested and granted before the 10 second count expired). Therefore, I have no penalty.
(This also fits the general pattern of A being able to use a timeout to avoid certain violations.)