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Originally Posted by just another ref
Is it stated anywhere that team control starts only with player control? Team A inbounds the ball, and immediately, without any player catching the ball, advances up the court with a series of touch passes. By definition passing includes players batting or rolling the ball to each other. Also by definition, as stated here earlier, team control includes passing activity. So why would a foul in this situation not be a team control foul?
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case book play 4-12-6 referencing throw-ins says
"The throw-in ends when A2 touches the ball, but the backcourt count does not start until A3 gains control. That means that neither player or team control has been established because either is needed to have a backcourt violation as per 9-8.