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Originally Posted by tibear
I recognize what your saying. However, if you look at the play, did interference really occur. The BR attempted to interfere with F3 but was unsuccessful because F3 still made the catch, so in fact there was no interference.
I was looking at the rulesofbaseball.com website where it has a test quiz question very similar to this one where there is R2 and the Batter bunts towards first. The BR is running illegally towards first and is "grazed" by a thrown ball from the catcher but F3 still catches the ball to register the out, R2 continues on and scores on the play. The website indicates that it is a grey area because most umpires would immediately call interference and call the play dead, however they indicate that most professional umpires would ignore the interference and let the run score. Their interpretation is that the rulebook states that it is up to the umpire to determine if interference really occured and in this case since the out was registered, no interference took place.
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Tibear. you're talking something completely different. you said that the runner was running illegally to 1B but don't say what he was doing that was wrong. I will assume he was out of the running lane. If that is case then the determining factor would be the fielder catching the ball so no interference, plus on a thrown ball the umpire would have to judge that the runner did something intentional to interefere with the thrown ball.
This sitch is different from interfering with a fielder fileding a batted ball.