[greymule]

A certain softball code prescribes what I consider to be perverse rulings on certain plays. So I'm trying to use OBR as a benchmark to understand the "legal" reasoning behind why these perversities could not happen in baseball.

Play A

No outs. Abel on 3B and Baker on 2B are both off on a suicide squeeze. Charles bunts but pops the ball toward F3. Abel slides across the plate and Baker stops at 3B. Seeing that F3 will catch the ball, Charles deliberately grabs F3's glove.

I would call Charles out for interference, and because of the willful and deliberate nature of the interference, I would also call Abel out as the runner closest to home, even though he was across the plate at the time of the interference. I would send Baker back to 2B.

Play B

Same situation, except that Charles tried to avoid F3 but bumped him anyway as F3 at the last moment reached toward Charles for the ball.

Obviously Charles is out and no bases can be run, but I'm not sure about calling a second out.

Play C

Same situation as A or B except that F3 catches the ball anyway and throws immediately to F5, who tags 3B on the appeal on Abel and then tags Baker for a triple play.

I think that even if I had called interference as soon as it occurred, I'd let the triple play stand. But I don't know that I could support this by the book.

Play D

Abel on 3B, no outs. Suicide squeeze. Baker pushes a nice bunt up the 1B line and Abel scores easily. Then, as Baker is running toward 1B, he drops his bat, and it hits the ball in fair territory.

Obviously Baker is out, but does the "no runners may advance" clause in 7.09 (b) still apply to Abel if he scored before the infraction?

What do you think?