Ok, I am getting in on the end of this issue after we have changed topic a few times, man miss a day miss a lot I tell you what!!
Anyway, back to the OP, I have a stupid question. To me taking intent out of the rule book leads to more issues. I know anyone can cook up any play, so let's take a sample of my cooking.
Same situation, R1 heading to 3rd, SS fields the ball that throws to the open area around the runner, but that darn runner is fast and runs right into the throw, again this is my world I was there so take my word for it
, no intent by the fielder to hit the runner, just timing. Last year I would say if the coach asked "Wasn't intentional coach not INT" This year what am I going to say? Again I don't have the new book so I have no clue how the whole picture comes together (POE, casebook and rule book cover to cover all sections combined) BUT, to me it opens the door to the following conversation.
C: "Blue, that is INT"
U:"No coach there was no intent"
C: "Don't have to have intent, rule changed this year"
U: "I know coach, but intent is assumed in interference and there wasn't any"
C: "Rule says interferes with a thrown ball, ball hit her, and skipped to the fence how is that not interfering?"
U: "There was no intent by the fielder to cause that ball to go, it was incidential contact"
C: "Don't have to be intent, rule chaged this year"......
On and on. To me in my little mind, it is making it MUCH harder NOT to call INT on these situation since there is no intent in the rule. UNLESS, another part of the book has changed that lists intent is required to have INT, but I have not heard of this. To me making this an implied thing, will make coaches feel like they are out of the loop, and if all they have is the book, where are they suppose to learn that intent is still required even though the book don't tell them that anymore???