[Jurassic Referee]

Originally Posted by johnnyrao

In the post about the player stepping on an opponent and then taking a lay up, JR says in one post, "As Bob said, there is no such animal as an intentional flagrant foul- either peronal or technical. The foul may be "intentional" or "flagrant, but it can't be both.". Can someone clarify this for me so I do not mess it up mechanically. I understand the rule, so if I am tracking correctly, if you have a foul in a game that you deem is a flagrant foul, the proper mechanic is the same as any other common foul, except you report that the player is disqualified? In other words, you do not signal an intentional foul? I saw a game last year where the official signalled intentional foul and then ejected the player. The foul, IMO, was flagrant and the ejection was justified. Was this improper mechanics? If so, then how do you signal to let everyone know that you are making the call? I mean, in a tight contest between rivals (which this game I saw last year was), it would have looked strange to just call this foul exactly the same as any other. Is there a good way to sell a foul as flagrant without the intentional mechanic?

Johnny, the crossed-arms signal is correct for an intentional foul. There is no signal in either NCAA or NFHS rules for a flagrant foul. You can't use the intentional foul signal for a flagrant foul; they're completely different. You can either just report it as such with no signal, or you can use the baseball "heave-ho" signal- which a lot of officials do use. Just make sure you inform the head coach, is all.