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Originally Posted by Snaqwells
Violation. Assuming he has stopped dribbling, once he picks up the foot in the back court, he has front court status. The only part of his body on the floor is in the front court. Wether the foot is the pivot or not is irrelevant to this rule.
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But according to the rule, for the player to obtain front court status, both feet and the ball must be in the front court. This is in direct contradition to this situation, as the second foot never came over into the front court. If you are saying the player and ball have obtained frontcourt status at this point, it is the same as saying a player is in the frontcourt once one foot and the ball are in the frontcourt, and nothing is in the backcourt.
Why would they say both feet and the ball have to be in the frontcourt if only one foot was required?