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Originally Posted by tibear
After pondering this question a day or so, I have another question.
Situation: R1, # outs doesn't matter. Pitcher attempts pick-off at first as runner breaks for second, R1 involved in rundown between first and second and while slidding back into first is obstructed by defensive player without ball. Doesn't the runner automatically get second base or is he only entitled to first?
Given the question on the exam and the subsequent answer that the umpire would have to have judged the runner would have made it home if he wasn't obstructed. In my situation, the answer would have to be that R1 is NOT entitled to second but only first because infact when he was obstructed he wasn't even attempting for second but first.
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I found my own answer. Difference between obstruction A and obstruction B.