[tibear]

Here is an actual question from a Canadian 2006 Level 3 Umpire Exam that I found:

R1, R2. No outs The batter hits a shot to the outfield gap. R2 scores easily. R1 is obstructed rounding third and is thrown out by a mile at home. The catcher then throws out BR trying to leg out a triple. This play should stand.

False. 'Time' should be called when the play is being made at home. The umpire will have to determine whether or not he thinks that runner would have scored if there had been no obstruction. Either way the BR should go back to second.

At the very least the question is ambiguous because it doesn't indicate whether BR1 has already touched third before the obstruction, and at worst if the assumption is made that third WAS touched then it is clearly wrong.

Rule 7.06 clearly indicates that the R1 should automatically be given home on this obstruction, "The obstructed runner shall be awarded at least one base beyond the base he had last legally touched before the obstruction."


Another question asks: "R2. One out. The pitcher has started his delivery when the batter steps out of the batter's box. The pitcher stops his delievery. This is a balk." False. The rulebook is very clear on this. Because both the batter and pitcher are doing things they shouldn't be, this is considered 'nothing' and the play should be started from scratch.

I don't claim to be an 'expert' on the the OBR but I'm never heard of a "do over" or "nothing" Does anyone know the rule in the rulebook which would make this "very clear"???