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Originally Posted by debeau
Yep good theory question and I just had it at an ISF accreditation as my case play .
My answer was no interference play on could even have OBST.
Merle Butler who took the clinic said I was wrong .
Everyone at the clinic said I was wrong .
So as didnt want to embarrass Merle I asked him on his own.
Answer : Dead ball get the runner to return to 3rd and the batter to bat again .
I then asked the other examiner .
Wait until ball rolls fair then kill it and and have an out for Int
Then another examiner .
Dead ball runner out batter to 1st .
Other answers wer
Dead ball runner out batter bats on .
ISF mirrors ASA in the INTF rule but I really would like to know what to do the answer
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I am amazed that a question such as this would be on an accreditation test without an agreed official interpretation among the examiners.
That said, I have several comments on points raised in this thread.
Speaking ASA.
First, I agree with WMB - there is no good reason to have the rule written differently for a R vs a BR.
Second, I disagree with the theory that all batted balls are fair until they become foul. If that were the case, Rule 1 could simply say "FAIR BALL - Any batted ball that has not been declared a FOUL ball."
Third, my comment just above is at least called into question by the wording of ASA rule 8-8-E, which uses the curious phrase "fair untouched batted ball over foul territory" - now, that could mean a batted ball that contacted a base (definition FAIR BALL - E) and was deflected by the base into foul territory. Otherwise, I don't see how any untouched batted ball could be fair and also over foul territory where a runner could contact it.
Fourth, I'm with argodad on the call.