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Originally Posted by JM_00
I think that the purpose behind this exemption to determining FC status is to save us some headaches. When the player makes a catch and ends up with one foot FC and one foot BC, we are treating it as if both feet landed simultaneously.
Imagine trying to determine if you should call a violation because the FC foot landed 0.1 seconds or less before the BC foot. Or what if the defensive player was fumbling the ball when the first foot hit and then gained control once the BC foot came down? We already have enough difficult judgement calls to make. This rule makes our lives easier... (maybe we should have more rules like this  ) |
I disagree....it just moves the point of judgement. We still have to decide if the player catches the ball before or after the foot lands ...first foot in FC then catch, then other foot BC equals a violation (by the book anyway) whlie catch, then first foot down is not a violation. Still have to split hairs to get it right. Of course, if it is close, I'm going to err on the side of not blowing the whistle.
This rule's purpose is to allow the defense an opportunity to make a play on the ball near the midcourt line without jeapordizing turning it right back over just becasue the steal was at midcourt. Some of those situations still exist but this change (made about 5-7 years ago) removed a majority of them.