Thread: defensive steal
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Old Tue Oct 24, 2006, 03:54pm
Jurassic Referee Jurassic Referee is offline
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Originally Posted by palmettoref

If the first foot comes down in the FC, doesn't B1 have FC status? Therefore a violation if the other foot touches the BC following the first foot touching the FC?
No, B1 does not have FC status when his first foot touches down. That's exactly what rule 9-9-3 is telling you. B1's landing is an exception to the normal way of determining frontcourt/backcourt status. The NFHS is saying that because B1 is completely airborne, he doesn't have his status determined until after both feet have landed. After landing, if B1 has one feet in the FC and one foot in the BC, then B1 now has BC status but also never has had frontcourt status.

Note that this exception only applies to a completely airborne player. If a player takes a throw-in or steals a pass with one foot already on the court, then, yes, where that foot is touching the court will determine their FC/BC status.

Last edited by Jurassic Referee; Tue Oct 24, 2006 at 04:00pm.
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