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Originally Posted by bob jenkins
I think you're mis-reading the sentence (or, more accurately, I think the FED mis-worded the sentence). I think they are giving examples of players who *are* involved in the play and the foul should *not* be intentional (absent other criteria).
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Not really. I asked for feedback from another source and that's the way that they read and interpreted it too. If a defender fouls someone out of the play on a throw-in( iow a player without the ball and also not about to receive the ball), an intentional foul should be called. They're talking about those type of fouls being committed while the thrower still has the ball in his hands. The rationale is that the "going for the ball" part is not a factor if there is no ball for the defender to go for.