[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by Dave Hensley

What is the point of noting the runner has a better chance of avoiding the collision, unless you are suggesting that he had some obligation to do so?

I didn't point it out originally. I said, "as Garth has pointed out." Neither of us said anything about any obligation. We only presented the fact that is already in evidence, which is that the runner had a better chance of avoiding the collision. The fact that the runner was unable to avoid the fielder speaks volumes about the bang-bang nature of what happened. You need to read what I quote below.

Originally Posted by Dave Hensley

In the play as given, when the collision occurred, the fielder was NOT "doing what he's supposed to be doing, which is catch the baseball..." He had already had his kiss at that pig, and it didn't work out. You have made no effort to explain the conflict between your interpretation of this play and the statement from the OBR I have previously quoted - "After a fielder has made an attempt to field a ball and missed, he can no longer be in the "act of fielding" the ball."

There is a key word in that statement, that also appears in the original description of the play - "after." My only point is there is rulebook support for a judgment of obstruction. You judge train wreck, fine. The original poster judged obstruction, and based on his description and the official rules and their interpretation, that's fine, too.

The original poster also just said to us:

Originally Posted by DTQ

For all who asked, F3 leaped and came down before the collision, but did not have time to vacate the baseline.

(emphasis added)

Based on this, if you call obstruction, you would be incorrect. Your statement from OBR means that the fielder, after having attempted and failed catching the ball, must not now do anything to obstruct the runner. It does not mean that he has to suddenly disappear. If he then subsequently goes out of his way to impede the runner, then you have obstruction.

You keep debating this with me, as if I'm the only one saying this. Most posters have agreed that if F3 didn't have time after his leap to get out of the way, that it is not obstruction.