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Originally Posted by WeekendRef
With a runner on 1st batter hits a foul ball . Does the runner on 1st have to re-touch first base before the next pitch ?
From what I remember the umpire should not put the ball back in play until the runner has re-touched 1st ....is this correct ?
If it is correct let's say the runner does not re-touch after a foul ball (and the ump signals to play ball) and on the next pitch the batter hits a gapper which scores the runner from first . Is there any way the defensive team can appeal and the runner be called out for not re-touching after a foul ball ?
I am not sure I totally understand the logic behind re-touching 1st but I am not questioning the logic just curious about being able to appeal.....
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Note the absence of a penalty.
The purpose is to get the runners back where they belong before restarting play. Given that runners can lead off, being "close enough" is therefore OK.
The onus is all on the umpires per a strict reading of the rule.