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Old Thu Mar 02, 2000, 07:38pm
tugger tugger is offline
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quote:
Originally posted by Todd VandenAkker on 03-02-2000 05:41 PM
True, the ball itself doesn't "cause" a foul, but if the action of the player WITH the ball results in contact that places the opponent at a disadvantage, it can still be a foul. If a player pivots and turns into a legally positioned opponent, and the ball happens to strike him instead of the body/shoulder but still displace him, I'd call a foul (player control)--if that amount of contact would be a foul WITHOUT the ball, then it's probably a foul WITH the ball. At the same time, we should be prepared to determine whether the contact itself was incidental and had no bearing on the play. If the ball handler subsequently gets a clear shot at or drive to the hoop, I'd say it affected the play and should be called.

[This message has been edited by Todd VandenAkker (edited March 02, 2000).]


I agree with Todd. In Rule 4-7-2d, it states,"The player with the ball my not push the torso of the guard to gain an advantage..." It doesn't state with the hands, hips, knee, feet, arm, etc. I would include using the ball as a method of pushing in this description.
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