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Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve
It would appear not. All this time I have been attributing his rants to hormones. I think the pronouns and signing his posts "Lil" had something to do with it. I now have Roper/Furley syndrome, however. Why would a man use feminine pronouns speaking of hypothetical umpires anyway?
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I put myself in the habit of occasionally using the feminine pronoun in the general case in the late 70's. At the time, I suppose, I felt that it was a way to challenge assumptions of gender roles and help folks break free of their prejudices.
Thanks goodness that isn't necessary anymore
, but I have kept the habit.