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I assume that it is being ruled foul because it touched an offensive player while over foul territory. But just before that, it wasn't foul yet (it hadn't settled on foul territory, nor had it bounded past 1B over foul territory).
I can see validity in both sides of this point, but if I think the ball had a reasonable chance of rolling fair, and that the defense had a reasonable chance at an out, I feel compelled to rule interference.
Edit: But I also have to be reasonably confident that the act of the BR was intentional.
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