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Old Wed Sep 06, 2006, 03:21pm
mcrowder mcrowder is offline
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Location: Little Elm, TX (NW Dallas)
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Quote:
Originally Posted by JollyJim
Last night in a men's league tournament, we had this situation: Mark is the runner at 1B and Bubba (yes that really is his name) is the batter. Bubba rips a liner down the line that hits Mark while he is still standing on 1B. Mark falls to the ground in foul territory as the ball rolls across the infield and Bubba advances to 1B. I make no call yet because I believe the pay is still live since Mark was still on the base when hit. The second baseman throws the ball to second, with Mark still lying on the ground. The base umpire makes no call, so I call "time" and call Mark out at second. Mark and Bubba both protest because - to my surprise - the base umpire had call "time" during the play because it hit Mark. Mark and Bubba both claimed Mark didn't advance to second because "time" had been called. - - My ruling, after confirming with the BU that he did call "time", was that Mark never made an attempt to advance, even before "time" was called, and therefore was forced out at second.
You don't state the ruleset you are using, but in most (and assuming F3 is behind the runner), Mark is out immediately and the ball is dead. In most rulesets, the base is only a safehaven in an IFF situation.

PS - are you sure the ball was fair?
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